Jason D
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We do a lot of these and have had nothing but great success and appreciation from the clients, until yesterday.
We were invited into a case by a restoring doc who was referred by a local implant rep.
We went through the treatment planning process with the implant rep, surgical practice and restoring practice. Showed up for day of conversion, and the surgery went badly, surgeon was not happy with bone quality, did further bone reduction...blah blah blah decided to cover and let the patient heal rather than immediate load. Restoring doc was not present for surgery.
We relined the dentures and went on our way. Now normally we have a substantial but fair price for conversions, but this was a disappointment for everyone and, as a courtesy we decided to forego our normal conversion charge (which is non refundable in the event of a same day debacle normally) and the lost time etc, and just charge for the relines we performed. Told restoring Dr's office manager (who is also treatment coordinator and had been in all the conversations) and he was very grateful, thought we were being very generous about it.
Here's where it got weird: the doctor calls back a few minutes later and says "I didn't hire you to reline those dentures, I'm not paying." Explained that we were NOT charging for the conversion, just the relines, dr remained insistent that she did not even know why we had been at the appointment (despite that being their request from the beginning.) Said if we want to charge someone to charge the surgeon.
SO....
shame on us for not defining the terms beforehand, these cases have become sort of autopilot for us because we do so many of them, and we always bill whichever entity requested the service..and we sort of got brought into this one But my question is: if surgeon and restoring doc are not in the same practice or same person, who normally pays your conversion bill? is it typically restoring doc or surgeon or does it vary from practice to practice?
We were invited into a case by a restoring doc who was referred by a local implant rep.
We went through the treatment planning process with the implant rep, surgical practice and restoring practice. Showed up for day of conversion, and the surgery went badly, surgeon was not happy with bone quality, did further bone reduction...blah blah blah decided to cover and let the patient heal rather than immediate load. Restoring doc was not present for surgery.
We relined the dentures and went on our way. Now normally we have a substantial but fair price for conversions, but this was a disappointment for everyone and, as a courtesy we decided to forego our normal conversion charge (which is non refundable in the event of a same day debacle normally) and the lost time etc, and just charge for the relines we performed. Told restoring Dr's office manager (who is also treatment coordinator and had been in all the conversations) and he was very grateful, thought we were being very generous about it.
Here's where it got weird: the doctor calls back a few minutes later and says "I didn't hire you to reline those dentures, I'm not paying." Explained that we were NOT charging for the conversion, just the relines, dr remained insistent that she did not even know why we had been at the appointment (despite that being their request from the beginning.) Said if we want to charge someone to charge the surgeon.
SO....
shame on us for not defining the terms beforehand, these cases have become sort of autopilot for us because we do so many of them, and we always bill whichever entity requested the service..and we sort of got brought into this one But my question is: if surgeon and restoring doc are not in the same practice or same person, who normally pays your conversion bill? is it typically restoring doc or surgeon or does it vary from practice to practice?